Question

plz prove this question

Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1/tan^2 = cot^2 and vice-versa

Now

Consider LHS

1+1/tan^2=1+cot^2= cosec^2

1+1/cot^2=1+tan^2= sec^2

=Cosec^2* sec^2

We know that cosex^2=1/sin^2

Sec^2=1/cos^2=1/(1-sin^2)

Now

(1/sin^2)(1/(1-sin^2))

=1/(sin^2-sin^4)

= RHS

Answer 2

Hope this helps u.....