PlZ SOLVE IT ONLY IF YOU GUYS KNOW.
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PLEASE REFER PIC ABOVE DUDE
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Rolle's theorem is application of mean value theorem. in case of mean value theorem, f(x) is defined and continuous on the interval [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b), then there is at least one number c in the interval (a,b) (that is a< c < b) such that
/ ![b-a b-a](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=b-a)
if f'(c) = 0, it is said as Rolle's theorem,
here, f(x) = e^xsinx , x belongs to [0, π]
now, f'(x) = e^xsinx + e^xcosx
take a point c in interval [0, π] such that 0 < c < π.
then, from. Rolle's theorem, f'(c) =0
e^c [sinc + cosc] = 0
we know, e^c ≠ 0 so, [sinc + cosc] =0
sinc = -cosc
tanc = -1 = tan(π - π/4) = tan3π/4
c = 3π/4
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