Question

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Answer 1

• $\large \pmb{\bf{\underline{\gray{Solution :-}}}}$

$\sf {Assume\:\:\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty}\left ( \dfrac{x!}{x} \right )^{\dfrac{1}{x}} = L}$

• Take log both sides, we get

$\sf {ln(L)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left ( \dfrac{1}{x} \right )ln \left ( \dfrac{x!}{x} \right )}$

• $\pmb{\sf{\gray{ Put\ value\ of\ x! }}}$

$\sf {ln(L)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left ( \dfrac{1}{x} \right )ln \left ( \dfrac{x(x-1)!}{x} \right )}$

$\sf {ln(L)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left ( \dfrac{1}{x} \right )ln \left ( (x-1)! \right )}$

$\sf {ln(L)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{ln \left ( (x-1)! \right )}{x}}$

$\pmb{\tt{Multiplying \ with\ ( x - 1 )\ in\ numerator\ and\ denominator\, we\ get\ }}$

$\sf {ln(L)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} (x-1)\dfrac{ln \left ( (x-1)! \right )}{x(x-1)}}$

• $\pmb{\sf{We\ know\ that}}$

$\sf {\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{ln \left ( x! \right )}{x}=\infty}$

$\sf {ln(L)=(\infty) \displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{x-1}{x}}$

$\sf {ln(L)=(\infty) \displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(1-\dfrac{1}{x}\right)}$

• Put value of limits,

$\sf {ln(L)=(\infty) \left(1-\dfrac{1}{\infty}\right)}$

$\sf {ln(L)=(\infty) \left(1-0\right)}$

$\sf {ln(L)=\infty}$

$\sf{L=e^{\infty}}$

$\sf{L=\infty}$

Answer 2

Answer:

The force is the product of mass and acceleration. its SI unit is Newton and CGS unit is dyne. The CGS unit of force is equal to SI unit of force. Hence, The relation between SI and CGS unit of force is the CGS unit of force is equal to SI unit of force

Step-by-step explanation:

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