PLZ TELL THIS QUESTION IMMEDIATELY........
Attachments:
Answers
Answered by
1
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
In the given figure ar(ABCD)=ar(EFCD) because we know parallelogram on the same .and therefore 1/2ar(ABCD)=1/2ar(EFCD). -1
And 1/2ar(EFCD)=ar(GFC). -2
{because we know that area of triangle is equal to the half the area of the parallelogram as they both are on same base and between same parallels .}
So from1&2
We have that ar(GFC)=1/2ar(ABCD)
Similar questions