Math, asked by unicorn31, 9 months ago

PLZ TELL THIS QUESTION IMMEDIATELY........

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Answered by Sjaj
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

In the given figure ar(ABCD)=ar(EFCD) because we know parallelogram on the same .and therefore 1/2ar(ABCD)=1/2ar(EFCD). -1

And 1/2ar(EFCD)=ar(GFC). -2

{because we know that area of triangle is equal to the half the area of the parallelogram as they both are on same base and between same parallels .}

So from1&2

We have that ar(GFC)=1/2ar(ABCD)

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