Math, asked by pp4837337, 7 months ago

plz URGENT!!! i will mark u brainliest...​

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by silentloffer
1

Answer:

please mark me brainlist ✔️✔️✔️

Attachments:
Answered by byaswanth2005
1

Answer:

Hi your answer is as follows

Step-by-step explanation:

cosec = 1/sin

sec = 1/cos

tan = sin/cos

cot = cos/sin

substituting the values in the equation we get,

(\frac{1}{sin} -sin)(\frac{1}{cos} -cos)(\frac{sin}{cos} +\frac{cos}{sin} )

finding LCM we get,

(\frac{1-sin^{2} }{sin} )(\frac{1-cos^{2} }{cos} )(\frac{sin^{2}+cos^{2}  }{sin*cos} )

we know that ,

sin^{2} +cos^{2} =1\\sin^{2} =1-cos^{2} \\cos^{2} =1-sin^{2}

on substituting the values above in the equation we get,

(\frac{cos^{2} }{sin} )(\frac{sin^2}{cos} )(\frac{1}{sin*cos} )

on multiplying the three values we get,

\frac{cos^2*sin^2*1}{sin^2cos^2}

as we can cancel them out we remain with 1

Hence proved,

Mark as brainliest if you are satisfied with my answer

Similar questions