Math, asked by Anonymous, 10 months ago

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Answered by Madhav541
2

Answer:

it equals to 1

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Answered by Anonymous
14

AnswEr :

  • Option (B) is correct

Given Equations,

 \sf \:  {p}^{x - 1}  = qr  -  -  -  -  -  - (1) \\  \sf \:  {q}^{y - 1}  = rp \\   \sf \: r {}^{z - 1}  = pq

To finD

 \sf \:  \dfrac{1}{x}  +  \dfrac{1}{y}  +  \dfrac{1}{z}

Consider Equation (1),

 \implies \:  \sf \:  \dfrac{ {p}^{x} }{p}  = qr \\  \\  \implies \sf \: p {}^{x}  = pqr

Similarly,

 \sf \:  {q}^{y}  = pqr \: and \:  {r}^{z}  = pqr

Therefore,

 \sf \:   {p}^{x}  = {q}^{y}  = \:  {r}^{z}  = pqr

Taking log in the expression,we get :

  \implies \: \sf \:   log({p}^{x} ) =log( {q}^{y})  = log(  {r}^{z} ) =  log(pqr)

Applying Power Rule of Logarithm,

  \implies \: \sf \:   x.log({p}^{} ) =y.log( {q}^{})  = z.log(  {r}^{} ) =  log(pqr)

We get,

 \sf \: x  =  \dfrac{log(pqr) }{log(p)}  \\  \\  \implies \sf \:  log(p)  = \dfrac{log(pqr) }{x} -  -  -  -  -  -  -  -  - (a)

Also,

 \sf \: y  =  \dfrac{log(pqr) }{log(q)}  \\  \\  \implies \sf \:  log(q)  = \dfrac{log(pqr) }{y} -  -  -  -  -  -  -  -  - (b)

And,

 \sf \: z =  \dfrac{log(pqr) }{log(r)}  \\  \\  \implies \sf \:  log(r)  = \dfrac{log(pqr) }{z} -  -  -  -  -  -  -  -  - (c)

Adding equations (a),(b) and (c),we get :

\longrightarrow \sf log(pqr) \bigg[\dfrac{1}{x} + \dfrac{1}{y} + \dfrac{1}{z} \bigg] = log(p) + log(q) + log(r)

By Product Rule of Logarithm,

\longrightarrow \sf \cancel{log(pqr)} \bigg[\dfrac{1}{x} + \dfrac{1}{y} + \dfrac{1}{z} \bigg] = \cancel{log(pqr)}

Thus,

\longrightarrow \underline{\boxed{\sf \dfrac{1}{x} + \dfrac{1}{y} + \dfrac{1}{z}=1}}

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