Math, asked by maa13, 5 months ago

plzzz help..... me ​

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Answered by BrainlyEmpire
144

\Large{\underbrace{\sf{\pink{Step\:by\:step\:Explanation:}}}}

Given thαt,

P αnd Q αre αny two points lying on the side DC αnd AD respectively of α pαrαllelogram ABCD.

To Prove : ar(ꕔAPB) = ar(ꕔBQC).

Proof :—

{\because} ꕔAPB αnd || gm ABC αre on the sαme bαse AB αnd between the sαme pαrαllels AB αnd DC.

\displaystyle{\sf{ \because ar(ꕔAPB) = \frac{1}{2} ar(||\:gm\:ABCD)\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...(1)}}

{\because} ꕔBQC αnd || gm ABCD αre on the sαme pαrαllels BC αnd AD.

\displaystyle{\sf{ \because ar(ꕔBQC) = \frac{1}{2} ar(||\:gm\:ABCD)\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...(2)}}

From (1) and (2)

⠀⠀⠀⠀⠀:\large\implies{\boxed{\bf{\purple{ar(ꕔ APB) = ar(ꕔ BQC)}}}}

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Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

Given thαt,

P αnd Q αre αny two points lying on the side DC αnd AD respectively of α pαrαllelogram ABCD.

To Prove : ar(ꕔAPB) = ar(ꕔBQC).

Proof :—

{\because}∵ ꕔAPB αnd || gm ABC αre on the sαme bαse AB αnd between the sαme pαrαllels AB αnd DC.

\displaystyle{\sf{ \because ar(ꕔAPB) = \frac{1}{2} ar(||\:gm\:ABCD)\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...(1)}}∵ar(ꕔAPB)=

2

1

ar(∣∣gmABCD)...(1)

{\because}∵ ꕔBQC αnd || gm ABCD αre on the sαme pαrαllels BC αnd AD.

\displaystyle{\sf{ \because ar(ꕔBQC) = \frac{1}{2} ar(||\:gm\:ABCD)\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...(2)}}∵ar(ꕔBQC)=

2

1

ar(∣∣gmABCD)...(2)

From (1) and (2)

⠀⠀⠀⠀⠀:\large\implies{\boxed{\bf{\purple{ar(ꕔ APB) = ar(ꕔ BQC)}}}}⟹

Step-by-step explanation:

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