Math, asked by jozishaikh403, 1 month ago

Proof for 2=1 ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________XD​

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Answered by OoINTROVERToO
0

There is a fallacy in which 1 = 2 but like all fallacies, it contains an error that makes 1 = 2 wrong.

For example, let us create an equation where a = b.

Then, let’s modify the equation to get a² - b² = ab - b².

The equation is true as a = b so a² would equal ab.

Now, let’s factor:

a² - b² = (a + b) * (a - b).

ab - b² = b * (a - b).

Now the equation is: (a + b) (a - b) = b (a - b).

Dividing (a - b) on both sides, we would get a + b = b.

Since a = b, we could substitute all b’s for a.

Now, the equation would be a + a = a.

Simplifying, we would get 2a = a.

Dividing by a, we would get 2 = 1.

However, there is an error. See if you can find it…

The error is that when you divide a - b on both sides, a - b is simply 0 and one cannot divide by 0, thereby making all latter equations wrong.

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