Math, asked by shaikhassanabbas, 3 months ago

proof that 2 is irrational step by step​

Answers

Answered by govind1974
0

Step-by-step explanation:

Euclid's proof starts with the assumption that √2 is equal to a rational number p/q.

√2=p/q

Squaring both sides,

2=p²/q²

The equation can be rewritten as

2q²=p²

From this equation, we know p² must be even (since it is 2 multiplied by some number). Since p² is an even number, it can be inferred that p is also an even number.

Since p is even, it can be written as 2m where m is some other whole number. This is because the definition of an even number is it can be written as 2 multiplied by a whole number. Substituting p=2m in the above equation:

2q²=p²=(2m)²=4m²

or

2q²=4m²

Dividing both sides of the equation by 2:

q²=2m²

By the same reasoning as before, q² is an even number (since it is written as 2 multiplied by some number). So q is an even number. Let q=2n where n is some whole number. We had assumed √2 to be equal to p/q. So:

√2=p/q=2m/2n

By canceling 2 in the numerator and the denominator of the Right hand side,

√2=m/n

We now have a fraction m/n simpler than p/q.

However, we now find ourselves in a position whereby we can repeat exactly the same process on m/n, and at the end of it, we can generate a simpler function, say g/h. This fraction can be put through the same process again, and the new fraction, say, e/f will be simpler again.

But we know that rational number cannot be simplified indefinitely. There must always be a simplest rational number and the original assumption that √2 is equal to p/q does not obey this rule.

So it can be stated that a contradiction has been reached.

If √2 could be written as a rational number, the consequence would be absurd. So it is true to say that √2 cannot be written in the form p/q. Hence √2 is not a rational number.

Thus, Euclid succeeded in proving that √2 is an Irrational number.

Answered by abhisheksinghr81
0

Answer:

Root2 is an irrational number.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, As per our given question,

Let us assume that root2 is a rational number with its simplest form=a/b and are two integers a and b which are co-primes.

Now,=root2=a/b

On squaring both sides, we get

=2=a^2/b^2

=2b^2=a^2 -(1st)eq.

Here, As 2 is a prime no. and 2 divides b^2,

So, =2 divides a^2

=2 divides a

Now, Let a=2c for integer c,

By putting value of 2 in (1st)eq., we get,

=2b^2=(2c)^2

=2b^2=4c^2

=b^2=2c^2 (As, 2 is on both sides)

Here also,2 is a prime no. and 2 divides 2c^2,

So, =2 divides b^2

=2 divides b

Thus, as we get that a and b both have a common factor which is 2, But as we assumed that a and b are co-primes(numbers which have HCF=1, or only one factor).

This contradiction has arisen due to our wrong assumption that root 2 is rational number.

Hence, root2 is an irrational number.

Thank you.

Similar questions