Physics, asked by ritesh838, 1 year ago

proof that f(force)is directly proportional to 1/square of r in gravitation law of newton. How newton proof that?​

Answers

Answered by DLRAJ
2

Answer:

mate u get better answer from Google . it's my advice

Explanation:

please click on the thanks

Answered by AnishaTabassum
0

Answer:

According to first law of Newtons,there is no force,there is no change in state of rest or of uniform.

Explanation:

In other words,ifthe force is applied,it may change the state of rest or of uniform motion.If the force is not sufficient or tries to change the state of rest of uniform motion of a body in a straight line.

Similar questions