Math, asked by niveditha26, 1 year ago

prove (1-cosA)cosec saqureA=1

Answers

Answered by realsujaykumar
0
for being equal to 1
it should be (cosA)^2 instead of cosA
then,.
{1-(cosA)^2}×(cosecA)^2
=(sinA)^2 ×1/(sinA)^2
=1
proved.
I hope this helps you...
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