Math, asked by rohitpython12, 4 months ago

prove π is irrational ??

Answers

Answered by rojalina1985mishra
0

Answer:

In the 1760s, Johann Heinrich Lambert proved that the number π (pi) is irrational: that is, it cannot be expressed as a fraction a/b, where a is an integer and b is a non-zero integer. In the 19th century, Charles Hermite found a proof that requires no prerequisite knowledge beyond basic calculus.

Answered by lk4507099
1

Answer:

Suppose

π

=

a

/

b

. Define

f

(

x

)

=

x

n

(

a

b

x

)

n

n

!

and

F

(

x

)

=

f

(

x

)

f

(

2

)

(

x

)

+

f

(

4

)

(

x

)

.

.

.

+

(

1

)

n

f

(

2

n

)

(

x

)

for every positive integer

n

.

First note that

f

(

x

)

and its derivatives

f

(

i

)

(

x

)

have integral values for

x

=

0

, and also for

x

=

π

=

a

/

b

since

f

(

x

)

=

f

(

a

/

b

x

)

.

We have

d

d

x

(

F

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

F

(

x

)

c

o

s

x

)

=

F

′′

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

+

F

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

=

f

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

whence

π

0

f

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

d

x

=

[

F

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

F

(

x

)

c

o

s

x

]

π

0

=

F

(

π

)

+

F

(

0

)

Z

But for

0

<

x

<

π

, we have

0

<

f

(

x

)

s

i

n

x

<

π

n

a

n

n

!

which means we have an integer that is positive but tends to zero as

n

approaches infinity, which is a contradiction.

Step-by-step explanation:

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