Math, asked by duragpalsingh, 3 months ago

Prove lhs = RHs for the given integral.

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Answered by XxHeartHeackerJiyaxX
2

Answer:

here is answer dear friend

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Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

answer :

By so doing you have already assumed the equality of the two sides. When proving an alleged equality, one has access to only one side, not both - the other side should pop out from the proof.

As for the rest, its integration via partial fractions, which I think you were on the right track.

hope it helps

have a great day

plz mark as brainliest ..

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