Question

Prove that π = 0

guys find answer for this interesting question ​

Answer 1

In an attempt to prove to myself that the equation eiπ=−1 is indeed true, I attempted to 'reverse engineer' it into a state that I already know to be true using Year 12 methods, (i.e. able to verify it in a basic calculator), but ended up with π=0 and was wondering where I went wrong. I don't doubt it comes down to me knowing pretty much nothing about imaginary numbers other then 'i' is defined as the square root of −1.

Anyway here was my attempt:

eiπln(−1)2ln(−1)ln((−1)2)ln(1)000=−1=iπ=2iπ, multiplied all by 2=2−1−−−√π=2−1−−−√π, it was at this point I realised I'd messed up=4⋅−1⋅π2, pointless squaring=−4⋅π2=π