Math, asked by ujwaldaivikar, 6 months ago

prove that 1/logabc to the base b+1/logabc to the base c+1/logabc to the base a=2​

Answers

Answered by Ameya09
0

Answer:

1logbcabc+1logacabc+1logababc is equal to

Step-by-step explanation:

Answered by SpanditaDas
0

Answer:

Your working start is good:

1%2F%28%28log%28abc%29%2Flog%28a%29%29%29 + 1%2F%28%28log%28abc%29%2Flog%28b%29%29%29 + 1%2F%28%28log%28abc%29%2Flog%28c%29%29%29

=log%28%28a%29%29%2Flog%28%28abc%29%29 + log%28%28b%29%29%2Flog%28%28abc%29%29 + log%28%28c%29%29%2Flog%28%28abc%29%29

Then, you forget that you are adding fractions with a common denominator, and multiply the denominators instead of leaving the common denominator alone, and just adding the numerators,like this:

=%28log%28%28a%29%29%2Blog%28%28b%29%29%2Blog%28%28c%29%29%29%2Flog%28%28abc%29%29=log%28%28abc%29%29%2Flog%28%28abc%29%29=1

That kind of confusion happens to most of us now and then.

Unfortunately, once we make a mistake like that we cannot detect it by ourselves.

We need help from a pair of fresh, unbiased eyes.

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