Math, asked by yuvrajsinghkaura, 1 year ago

prove that ( 1+tan²a) +(1+1 upon tan²a) =1upon sin²a- sin⁴a

Anonymous: there is multiply n

Anonymous: in question

yuvrajsinghkaura: no

Anonymous: yaa

yuvrajsinghkaura: this is the question

Anonymous: okay

Answers

Answered by Anonymous

7

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PrincessNumera: nice

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