Math, asked by bhattutsavir, 5 months ago

prove that (a-b)²=(b-a)²​

Answers

Answered by mayank1121994
6

Answer:

The explanation is as follows :

Let us consider L.H.S = ( a - b ) ^ 2 and R.H.S = ( b - a ) ^ 2

Let us take R.H.S

( b - a ) ^ 2 can be written as :

( (-1) ( a - b ) ) ^ 2 ( Take ‘-1′ common from the expression ( b - a ) )

=> ( -1 ) ^ 2 * ( a - b ) ^ 2

=> 1 * ( a - b ) ^ 2

=> ( a - b ) ^ 2

= L.H.S

Therefore both ( a - b ) ^ 2 and ( b - a ) ^ 2 are one and the same.

Answered by nehaimadabathuni123
3

Answer:

(a-b)^2=a^2+b^2–2ab.

Now (b-a)^2=(b-a)(b-a) (b-a)(b-a)

=b^2–2ab +a^2.

hence proved.

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