Math, asked by siddu3410, 11 months ago

Prove that (a/b)^m × (b/c)^m × (c/a)^m=1​

Answers

Answered by anjaneyulu7370
1

Answer:

YES THE BELOW IS EXPLANATION

Step-by-step explanation:

a^m/b^m   x   b^m/c^m  x   c^m/b^m  

the all terms will get cancel so  answer is 1

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