Math, asked by sg752002, 5 months ago

prove that a function f:R→R defined by f(x) =3x+2 is a bijective ​

Answers

Answered by vv7321424
0

Step-by-step explanation:

prove that a function f:R→R defined by f(x) =3x+2 is a bijective

Answered by sssakshamshkla
4
EXPLAINATION:
f : R → R defined by f(x) =2−3x
1–1is f(x)=f(y)then x=y we want to prove that
If f(x)=f(y)
2−3x = 2−3y
3x = 3y
x=y therefore f(X) is 1–1
Let f(x) =2−3x =y
y= 2–3x
3x= 2-y
x =(2-y)/3 which belongs to R
Therefore f(X) is onto
f is 1–1 & onto
Hence f is bijection
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