Math, asked by Sukanya29, 1 year ago

Prove that cos6.cos42.cos66.cos78=1/16.
Someone please help me out.

Answers

Answered by Priyanka2001
85
I hope it is clear ...........
Attachments:
Answered by babundrachoubay123
23

Answer:

L. H.S = R. H.S

Step-by-step explanation:

In this question

cos6\times cos42\times cos66\times cos78 = 1/16

Let, R.H.S

cos6\times cos42\times cos66\times cos78

Multiple and divided by 2

\frac{1}{2}\times (2cos42\times cos78)\times cos6\times cos66

\frac{1}{2}\times (cos120 + cos36)\times cos6\times cos66

\frac{1}{2}\times (-sin30\ + cos36)\times cos6\times cos66

\frac{1}{2}\times (\frac{-1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt5 + 1}{4} )\times cos6\times cos66

Again multiple and divided by 2

\frac{1}{4}\times (\frac{-1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt5 + 1}{4} )\times (2cos6\times cos66)

\frac{1}{4}\times (\frac{-1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt5 + 1}{4} )\times (cos72 + cos60)

\frac{1}{4}\times (\frac{-1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt5 + 1}{4} )\times ( \frac{\sqrt5 - 1}{4} + \frac{1}{2})

\frac{1}{4}\times (\frac{-2 + \sqrt5 + 1}{4} )\times ( \frac{\sqrt5 - 1 + 2}{4})

\frac{1}{4}\times (\frac{-1 + \sqrt5}{4} )\times ( \frac{\sqrt5 + 1}{4})

\frac{1}{4\times 4\times 4}\times (\sqrt5)^2 - 1^2

\frac{1}{4\times 4\times 4}\times (5 - 1)

\frac{1}{4\times 4\times 4}\times 4

\frac{1}{16}

L.H.S

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