English, asked by simasima14, 1 year ago

prove that =cosA=(1-tan^2A/2)/(1+tan^2A/2)

Answers

Answered by TheAishtonsageAlvie
6
Hey there !!

We have ,

 \frac{ {1 - \tan {}^{2} ( a) }}{2} \: \div \frac{ 1 + \: \tan^{2} \:a}{2} \\ \\\frac{ {1 - \tan \: ^{2} a }}{2} \: \: \times \frac{2}{ \: 1 + { \tan}^{2}a \: } \\ \\ \: \frac{1 - { \tan}^{2}a }{ {1 + \tan}^{2}a }
Putting → Tan ²A = Sin²A / cos²A

so , we get

{ 1 - Sin²A / cos²A } / { 1 + Sin²A / cos²A }

{ Cos²A - sin²A / Cos²a } / cos² A+ sin²A / cos²A

( Cos² A and Cos²A will be cancelled out )

Now ,

Cos² A- sin²A / ( ∵ sin²A + cos²A = 1 )

so ,

cos 2A

Dividing by 2 we get
cosA

⋆ Hope this would help you ⋆

TheAishtonsageAlvie: See it carefully plzz and tell where i did mistake ^_^
TheAishtonsageAlvie: Dont understand. me simpleton its 10th Class question understood , vand for your information i would tell u that i had already solve it otherwise u report ot and do checkout from other Leaders then They will judge and one think dont try to showoff more your self with the people , dont u know a small ant can Hurt to huge animsl like elephant
TheAishtonsageAlvie: thing*
Answered by TheLifeRacer
10
Hey friends ....

As you know that cos2A=cos²A-sin²A

and....we can also write that ..

cosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/1 ...If we put 1 on denominator then there is no change .

So

CosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/cos²A/2+sin²A/2 ,

{as you know that cos²A+cos²A/2=1 similarly here -Ais also )

CosA=cos²A-sin²A/cos²A/2÷cos²A/2+sin²A/2/cos²A/2

dividing by cos²A/2 on numerator and denominator)

cosA=1-tan²A/1+tan²A/2 prooved here ..

hope it helps you

@Rajukumar

TheAishtonsageAlvie: Hey people !! Here you hve solved with respect to 1 + tan ²A /1 - tan²A /2
TheAishtonsageAlvie: see
TheAishtonsageAlvie: 1 -tan²A/ 1 +tan²A *
TheAishtonsageAlvie: /2
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