prove that =cosA=(1-tan^2A/2)/(1+tan^2A/2)
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Answered by
6
Hey there !!
We have ,
Putting → Tan ²A = Sin²A / cos²A
so , we get
{ 1 - Sin²A / cos²A } / { 1 + Sin²A / cos²A }
{ Cos²A - sin²A / Cos²a } / cos² A+ sin²A / cos²A
( Cos² A and Cos²A will be cancelled out )
Now ,
Cos² A- sin²A / ( ∵ sin²A + cos²A = 1 )
so ,
cos 2A
Dividing by 2 we get
cosA
⋆ Hope this would help you ⋆
We have ,
Putting → Tan ²A = Sin²A / cos²A
so , we get
{ 1 - Sin²A / cos²A } / { 1 + Sin²A / cos²A }
{ Cos²A - sin²A / Cos²a } / cos² A+ sin²A / cos²A
( Cos² A and Cos²A will be cancelled out )
Now ,
Cos² A- sin²A / ( ∵ sin²A + cos²A = 1 )
so ,
cos 2A
Dividing by 2 we get
cosA
⋆ Hope this would help you ⋆
TheAishtonsageAlvie:
See it carefully plzz and tell where i did mistake ^_^
Answered by
10
Hey friends ....
As you know that cos2A=cos²A-sin²A
and....we can also write that ..
cosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/1 ...If we put 1 on denominator then there is no change .
So
CosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/cos²A/2+sin²A/2 ,
{as you know that cos²A+cos²A/2=1 similarly here -Ais also )
CosA=cos²A-sin²A/cos²A/2÷cos²A/2+sin²A/2/cos²A/2
dividing by cos²A/2 on numerator and denominator)
cosA=1-tan²A/1+tan²A/2 prooved here ..
hope it helps you
@Rajukumar
As you know that cos2A=cos²A-sin²A
and....we can also write that ..
cosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/1 ...If we put 1 on denominator then there is no change .
So
CosA=cos²A/2-sin²A/2/cos²A/2+sin²A/2 ,
{as you know that cos²A+cos²A/2=1 similarly here -Ais also )
CosA=cos²A-sin²A/cos²A/2÷cos²A/2+sin²A/2/cos²A/2
dividing by cos²A/2 on numerator and denominator)
cosA=1-tan²A/1+tan²A/2 prooved here ..
hope it helps you
@Rajukumar
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