Math, asked by ramanbhathal994, 9 months ago

prove that every infinite set has a countable subset​

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Answered by sainivinu83
0

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answered by akashkumar8497
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since S is infinite, S∖{f(0),…,f(n−1)} is non-empty for each n∈N. Therefore f[N] is infinite. To show that f is injective, let m,n∈N, say m<n. ... Thus f[N] is a countable subset of S.

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