Math, asked by rohitroshan344, 9 months ago

Prove that f(z) = 2xy + i ( x²+y²) is nowhere analytic. It is differentiable at any point on € ?​

Answers

Answered by manikagamit90
0

Answer:

2xy+1(x²+2xy+y²)

Step-by-step explanation:

=2xy+ x²+2xy+y²

= 2xy+2xy+x²+y²

=2xy€x²+y²

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