Prove that:(its urgent plz help someone who's intelligent enough !!)
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Let x = tan A , y = Tan B , z = Tan C
(x - y)/(1+x y) = tan (A-B)
(y-z)//(1+y z) = tan (B-C)
(z-x)/(1+z x) = tan (C - A)
LHS = (A-B) + (B-C) + (C-A) = 0
RHS is also similar to LHS.
If we assume x³ = tan P , y³ = tan Q , z³ = tan R
RHS = tan⁻¹ (tan (P-Q) ) + tan⁻¹ [tan (Q-R) ] + tan⁻¹ [ tan (R-P) ] = 0
LHS = RHS
(x - y)/(1+x y) = tan (A-B)
(y-z)//(1+y z) = tan (B-C)
(z-x)/(1+z x) = tan (C - A)
LHS = (A-B) + (B-C) + (C-A) = 0
RHS is also similar to LHS.
If we assume x³ = tan P , y³ = tan Q , z³ = tan R
RHS = tan⁻¹ (tan (P-Q) ) + tan⁻¹ [tan (Q-R) ] + tan⁻¹ [ tan (R-P) ] = 0
LHS = RHS
vivek2001:
thanx sir......... !!! :)
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