Math, asked by gsgurumath, 8 months ago

Prove that log32 log43 log5 4...log1514 log1615 =
1
4​

Answers

Answered by akilanroopesh03067
4

Answer:

sorry I don't know as I'm not learnt that

Answered by smithasijotsl
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove,

log₃2 ×log₄3× log₅4× ..........×log₁₅14 ×log₁₆15 =\frac{1}{4}

Recall the formula

Change of base rule of logarithm

logₐ b= \frac{log\ b}{log\ a}

Power rule of logarithm

log aⁿ = n×log a

Solution

LHS = log₃2 ×log₄3× log₅4× ..........×log₁₅14 ×log₁₆15

Applying the change of base rule of logarithm we get

log₃2 ×log₄3× log₅4× ..........×log₁₅14 ×log₁₆15

= \frac{log\ 2}{log\ 3} X \frac{log \ 3}{log \ 4} X\frac{log \ 4}{log \ 5} X...............\frac{log\ 14}{log \ 15} X \frac{log\ 15}{log \ 16}

canceling the terms we get

log₃2 ×log₄3× log₅4× ..........×log₁₅14 ×log₁₆15

= \frac{log\ 2}{log \ 16}

= \frac{log\ 2}{log \ 2^4}

Applying the power rule of logarithm we get

= \frac{log\ 2}{4log\ 2}

=\frac{1}{4}

log₃2 ×log₄3× log₅4× ..........×log₁₅14 ×log₁₆15 =\frac{1}{4}

Hence proved

SPJ3

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