Math, asked by lion12, 1 year ago

prove that nc0=1 regarding binomial theorem

Answers

Answered by alex57
3
we all know that
nCr = n! ÷ (n-r)!*r!
now,
nC0 = n! ÷ (n-0)!0!
nC0 = n! ÷ n!*1 [0! = 1]
nC0 = n! ÷ n!
nC0 = 1
hence proved
;-)

lion12: thanks
alex57: ur wlcm
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