prove that :
please solve it with explanation
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We have to prove:
Using sec A = 1/cos A and tan A = sin A/cos A in LHS we get;
We know that;
sin² A + cos² A = 1
⟹ cos² A = 1 - sin² A
using a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b) in RHS we get,
⟹ cos² A = (1 + sin A)(1 - sin A)
Substituting the value of cos² A in LHS we get;
Hence, Proved.
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