Prove that :-
Hint :-
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It would be better not to involve integral in the solution and make the solution more complicated if there's a simple approach for this.
We know that:
Also, we know that:
Therefore by using above two results, we get:
And our required result is proved.
Learn More:
How to solve ∫ ln(x!) dx lower bound 0 and upper bond 1?
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