Math, asked by shivani20122004, 9 months ago

prove that the above question​

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Answered by Vishalkannaujiya
1

tan = sin / cos Therefore, tan^ 2 = sin^2 / cos^2

The right hand side

(1- tan^2) / (1 + tan^2) = (1 - sin^2 / cos^2) / (1 + sin^2 / cos^2)

Multiplying both top and bottom by cos ^2,

= (cos^2 - sin^2) / (cos^2 + sin^2)

But cos^2 + sin^2 = 1, which means it is equal to

(cos^2 - sin^2), which is equal to the left side of the equation.

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