Question

prove that( x raised to a ^2 upon x raised to b^2 whole raised to 1 upon a +b ) × (x raised to b ^2 upon x raised to c^2 whole raised to 1 upon b+c) × (x raised to c^2 upon x raised to a^2 whole raised to 1 upon c+a ) = 1

Answer 1

Please find the answer below

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

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