Math, asked by Anonymous, 1 month ago

prove the question given in attachment​

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Answers

Answered by NikhFury
3

Step-by-step explanation:

I didn't have time to write but here's your answers

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Answered by StormEyes
2

Solution!!

\sf \dfrac{1+\tan ^{2}A}{1+\cot ^{2}A}=\dfrac{1-\tan ^{2}A}{1-\cot ^{2}A}=\tan ^{2}A

Taking LHS,

\sf =\dfrac{1+\tan ^{2}A}{1+\cot ^{2}A}

\sf =\dfrac{1+\tan ^{2}A}{1+\dfrac{1}{\tan ^{2}A}}

\sf =\dfrac{1+\tan ^{2}A}{\dfrac{\tan ^{2}A+1}{\tan ^{2}A}}

\sf =\dfrac{1+\tan ^{2}A}{\tan ^{2}A+1}\times \tan ^{2}A

\sf =\tan^{2}A

LHS = RHS

Taking Middle Term,

\sf =\left(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1-\cot A}\right)^{2}

\sf =\left(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1-\dfrac{1}{\tan A}}\right)^{2}

\sf =\left(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{\dfrac{\tan A-1}{\tan A}}\right)^{2}

\sf =\left(-\tan A\right)^{2}

\sf =\tan ^{2}A

Middle term = RHS

LHS = Middle Term = RHS

Hence, proved.

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