Question

Q no 6
A debt is Rs 5000/ due 5 years hence and another sum of Rs 7500/ due 8 years
hence are to be paid off by a single payment 6 years hence . If rate of interest is
8% per annum effectively, how much is this payment?
How an equation of money in the sum of the values on a given date. of one set of
obligations is the same as the sum of the values , on the same date of another set
of obligations. Justify your explanation with the help of an example.​

Answer 1

Answer:

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Answer 2

Explanation:

Given A debt is Rs 5000/ due 5 years hence and another sum of Rs 7500/ due 8 years  hence are to be paid off by a single payment 6 years hence . If rate of interest is  8% per annum effectively, how much is this payment?  How an equation of money in the sum of the values on a given date. of one set of  obligations is the same as the sum of the values , on the same date of another set  of obligations.

• Let m be the amount due in 6 years  
•     So for 5 years due we have
•        so Amount = P(1 + r/100)^n
•                            = 5000 (1 + 8/100)^6 – 5
•                           = 5000 (108 / 100)
•                           = 5000 x 1.08
•                          = Rs 5400
•  Also we have due in 8 years
•         Amount = P(1 + r/100)^n
•                        = 7500 (1 + 8/100)^6 – 8
•                        = 7500 (108 / 100)^ - 2
•                        = 7500 (100 / 108)^2
•                        = 7500 x 0.8573
•                       = Rs 6430.04
• Therefore sum of one set of obligations is equal to the other set of obligations.
•                         So  m = 5400 + 6430.04
•                           Or m = Rs 11830.04
• So the payment will be Rs 11830.04

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https://brainly.in/question/21667525