Social Sciences, asked by legendgaming1197, 8 months ago

Q1---why did the British use gold and silver for trade in India before 1765 ? Q2---what are the objective of a secular country ?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

1) Trade. "It was stated in evidence (in 1813) that the cotton and silk goods of India, up to this period, could be sold for a profit in the British market at a price from 50 to 60 per cent.

2) The three objectives of a secular State are stated below: (i)One religious community does not dominate another. (ii)Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community. (iii)The State does not enforce any particular religion nor does it take away the religious freedom of individuals.

Explanation:

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Answered by PURNA9239
1

Answer:

1) Trade. "It was stated in evidence (in 1813) that the cotton and silk goods of India, up to this period, could be sold for a profit in the British market at a price from 50 to 60 per cent.

1) Trade. "It was stated in evidence (in 1813) that the cotton and silk goods of India, up to this period, could be sold for a profit in the British market at a price from 50 to 60 per cent.2) The three objectives of a secular State are stated below: (i)One religious community does not dominate another. (ii)Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community. (iii)The State does not enforce any particular religion nor does it take away the religious freedom of individuals.

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