Math, asked by bsinghkalra0001, 11 months ago

Q2- If f(x) = x^2– x^-2 then f (1/x) is equal to
(a) f(x)
(b)-f(x)
(c) 1/F(x)
(d) [ f (x) ]^2

Answers

Answered by martingonsalves2005
1

Answer:

(c) 1/F(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

if f(x) = x^2 - x^-2

then, (1/x) = 1/x^2-x^-2

thus it is 1/f(x)

Hope it helps!! :)

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