Math, asked by BrainlyHelper, 1 year ago

Question 16: Solve sin¯¹ (1 – x) – 2 sin¯¹ x = π/2 , then x is equal to then x is equal to (A) 0,1/2 (B) 1,1/2 (C) 0 (D) 1/2

Class 12 - Math - Inverse Trigonometric Functions

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Answered by gkj1

0

option c is correct answer

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