Math, asked by jakibha, 11 months ago

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Answered by mathsdude85
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Answered by Anonymous
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For x1, x2 ∈ R, consider

f(\ x {}^{1} )= f(x { }^{2} )

 =  > \frac{x1}{{x}^{2}   _{1} + 1} =   \frac{x2}{ {x}^{2}_{2} + 1}

 =  >  {x}^{1} \:  {x}^{2} _{2}  + {x}^{1}  =  {x}^{2}  {x}^{1}  _{2}  +   {x}^{2}

  =  > {x}^{1}  {x}^{2}(  {x}^{2}  -  {x}^{1} ) =  {x}^{2}  -  {x}^{1}

 =  >  {x}^{1}  =  {x}^{2} \:  or  \: {x}^{2}  {x}^{1}  = 1

We note that there are point, x1 and x2 with x1 ≠ x2 and f (x1) = f (x2), for instance, if we take x1 = 2 and x2 = 1/2, then we have f (x1) =2/5 and f(x2) =2/5 but 2 ≠ 1/2 . Hence f is not one-one. Also, f is not onto for if so then for 1∈R ∃ x ∈ R such that f (x) = 1 which gives x/(x2+1) =1. But there is no such x in the domain R, since the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0 does not give any real value of x.

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