question no. 5 and 6
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Explanation: the dinensional formula of A would be same as that of dimensional formula of y....( because sin (wt +€) whole is dimensionless).....hence dimensional formula of A is L
On continuing further.....the principle of homogenity.....dimensional formula of wt and € must be same...since angular frequency has dimensional formula T^-1 so wt will be dimensionless.........thus € would be a dimensionless quantity...
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