Question

Range of f(x) = 2 cos–1x + 3 sin–1x + 4 tan–1x is [k1 π, k2π], then k1 + k2 is equal to

Answer 1

Answer:

Answer:

x=0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

As we know sin^-1x + cos^-1x is π÷2

4 sin^-1x can be written as 3 sin inverse x + sin inverse x

Therefore 4 sin inverse x + cos inverse x can be written as 3 sin inverse x + sin inverse x +cos inverse x=π

which will be 3 sin inverse x +π÷2=π

=>3 sin inverse x = π÷2

=>sin inverse x =π÷6

x=1÷2 or x=0.5

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Answer 2

Answer:

this correct answer please give me thank you