Math, asked by rakhigour86, 8 months ago

reset answer
Q 29 A man can do a work in 10 days. With the
help of a boy, he can do the same work in
6 days. If they get Rs. 50 for that work,
what is the share of the boy?
55965-1885201
Rs. 20
Ops: A
B.
Rs. 10
C.
Rs. 30
D.
Rs. 40​

Answers

Answered by MysticalStar07
14

Answer:

\huge\mathfrak\green{{》Answer《}}

Step-by-step explanation:

A man can do a work in 10 days

A man do a part of work in 1 days = \dfrac{1}{10}

With the help of a boy he can do the same work in 6 days

Together they can do a part of work in 1 day =  \dfrac{1}{6}  -  \dfrac{1}{10}

 ⇒\dfrac{4}{60}

➢So

Boy can do a part of work in 1 day =

 \dfrac{60}{14} =15

➣Then

Man : Boy = ⇒ \frac{1}{10}:  \frac{1}{15}

⇒15: \: 10

⇒3: \: 2

➢Now

They got Rs.50 for that work

➣so

Boys share =  ⇒\dfrac{2}{5}  \times 50

Boys share = 20

 \therefore Boys \: share \: is \: Rs.20

HOPE IT HELPS YOU FRIEND...☺

》》Ⱥʀɲɑѵ✯

Answered by Anonymous
13

Answer:

\huge\mathfrak\red{{Answer}}

Step-by-step explanation:

A man can do a work in 10 days

A man do a part of work in 1 days = \dfrac{1}{10}

With the help of a boy he can do the same work in 6 days

Together they can do a part of work in 1 day =  \dfrac{1}{6}  -  \dfrac{1}{10}

 ⇒\dfrac{4}{60}

➢So

Boy can do a part of work in 1 day =

 \dfrac{60}{14} =15

➣Then

Man : Boy = ⇒ \frac{1}{10}:  \frac{1}{15}

⇒15: \: 10

⇒3: \: 2

➢Now

They got Rs.50 for that work

➣so

Boys share =  ⇒\dfrac{2}{5}  \times 50

Boys share = 20

 \therefore Boys \: share \: is \: Rs.20

HOPE IT HELPS YOU FRIEND...☺

》》Ⱥʀɲɑѵ✯

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