Question

साइंटिफिक रीजन वी कैन हियर द मोमेंट ऑफ फॉर मॉस्किटोज मींस व्हाट यू मीन कैन नॉट हियर द वूमेन ऑफ आवर हैंड​

Answer 1

Answer:

defining the moment of a force about a point as "the tendency of one or more applied forces to rotate an object about an axis [going through a point, hence also about a point]", I see it logical to infer that it is somehow related to the angle between the force and the moment arm, but why put it directly proportional to the sine of that angle? Why not lnn(1+θ) for example? This will become zero as the angle tends to zero.

Explanation:

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