Economy, asked by tzudirwatila5, 1 month ago

sale of share is a national income? Give reason?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

                             

(i) No, it is a part of intermediate consumption expenditure.

(ii) Yes, as it Is a part of profits.

(iii) No, as it is assumed that such goods are consumed, the moment they are purchased.

(iv) Yes, it is a part of private final consumption expenditure.

(v) No, as it is a capital gain.

Attachments:
Similar questions