Math, asked by Uday2473, 1 year ago

Sec+tan=m Sec-tan=n Show that mn=1

Answers

Answered by mehtadimple1234
3
(sec+tan)(sec-tan)
sec^2-tan^2
=1
Answered by ExploringMathematics
0

\rm{m\times n\:is\:equal\:to\:(sec\:\theta+tan\:\theta)(sec\:\theta-tan\:\theta)}

\longrightarrow\rm{mn =(sec\:\theta+tan\:\theta)(sec\:\theta-tan\:\theta) }

\longrightarrow\rm{mn =sec^2\:\theta-tan^2\:\theta\quad...\:Since\:(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2}

\longrightarrow\rm{mn =1/\cos ^{2} \theta-\sin ^{2} \theta/\cos ^{2} \theta\quad...\:Since\:sec\:\theta=1/\cos\theta\:\&\: tan\:\theta=\sin\:\theta/\cos\:\theta}

\longrightarrow\rm{mn =(1-\sin ^{2} \theta)/\cos ^{2} \theta=\cos ^{2} \theta/\cos ^{2} \theta}

\longrightarrow\rm{mn =1\quad...\:Hence\:Proved!}

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