Math, asked by navyaeamijoseph, 8 months ago

Set of irrationals in (0,1) is uncountable. Proof?

Answers

Answered by devansh96kkr

0

Step-by-step explanation:

The basic idea of proving that is to show that by averaging between every two different numbers there exists a number in between. ... Since [0,1] is a compact interval, we know that there exists infinitely many numbers in between and thus the interval has infinitely many memebers and therefore the set is uncountable.

Answered by pgdharanesh

0

Answer:

There is no mathematical proof but the reason of set of irrationals in (0,1) being uncountable is that if you start writing all of them, you not be able to complete writing them.

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