Show that (b-c)^2n+1 + (c-a)^ 2n+1 + (a-b)^ 2n+1 is divisible by (b-c) (c-a) (a-b), n being any positive integer
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2
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
(b-c)^2n+1 + (c-a)^2n+1 + (a-b)^2n+1
=(b-c+c-a+a-b)^2n+1
=0^2n+1
=0
0/(b-c) (c-a) (a-b)
=0
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