Math, asked by creeperman80, 10 months ago

Show that (b-c)^2n+1 + (c-a)^ 2n+1 + (a-b)^ 2n+1 is divisible by (b-c) (c-a) (a-b), n being any positive integer​

Answers

Answered by Manisharan33
2

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

(b-c)^2n+1 + (c-a)^2n+1 + (a-b)^2n+1

=(b-c+c-a+a-b)^2n+1

=0^2n+1

=0

0/(b-c) (c-a) (a-b)

=0

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