Physics, asked by srivastavsuraj78, 10 months ago

show that magnetic flux through loop 1 due to unit current in loop 2 is equal to the magnetic flux through loop 2 due to unit current in loop 1​

Answers

Answered by rohanpawar10906
1

Explanation:

Given :

ϕ=8t

2

+6t+C

where, C is a constant, t is in sec, ϕ in milli-weber

The induced e.m.f. in the loop at t=2, on differentiating the equation with respect to 't'.

dt

=

dt

d

(8t

2

+6t+C)

=16t+6

at t=2

dt

=16×(2)+6

=32+6

=38 mWb/s

please mark as brainlest answer

Answered by Anonymous
0

Faraday's Principle of Electromagnetic Induction states that the emf induced in a loop due by a changing magnetic flux is equal to the rate of change of the magnetic flux threading the loop. The magnetic flux threading a coil of wire can be changed by moving a bar magnet in and out of the coil.

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