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tan48× tan23× tan67= 1
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Answered by
4
=tan48×tan(90-67)×tan67
=tan48×cot67×tan67
=tan48
that's the answer man
rimidutta:
but you have to prove that the answer is one but you show the different method
I think the question includes tan 42 too!!!
Answered by
4
I think there must be tan42° so the product will be 1.
tan48°×tan23°×tan42°×tan67° = 1
Solving LHS,
We know that 48+42 = 90
hence, 42 = 90-48
and 67+23 = 90
67 = 90-23
Now, substitutes those value but now there will be a cot sign, so
tan 48°×cot 48°×tan 23°× cot 23°
Here tan and cot will be cancel out so,
1×1
1
Hence proved.
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