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Step-by-step explanation:
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given LHS
=1-tan^2a ÷ 1+tan^2a
=1-tan^2a÷sec^2a
( 1+tan^2a=sec^2a)
=1-(sec^2a-1) ÷sec^2a
(tan^2a=sec^2a-1)
=now, 1-sec^2a+1÷sec^2a
=2-sec^2a÷sec^2a
=2÷sec^2a-sec^2a÷sec^2a
=2cos^2a-1
(1÷sec^2a=cos^2a)
Hence proved
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