Math, asked by omthakurhp, 10 months ago

Show that the function T:R2-R2 defined by T(X1,X2)=(x1-X2, X1+X2) for (X1-X2) e R2 Is biyetive

Answers

Answered by mohinishrivastava572
0

Answer:

i don't know if I can I Will help

Answered by pulakmath007
19

\displaystyle\huge\red{\underline{\underline{Solution}}}

GIVEN

The linear mapping T :  \mathbb{ {R}^{2} }  \mapsto\mathbb{ {R}^{2} }

defined by

T(x_1,x_2)= (x_1 - x_2, x_1 + x_2) \:  \: for \:  \: (x_1,x_2) \in \: \mathbb{ {R}^{2} }

TO PROVE

T is bijective

FORMULA TO BE IMPLEMENTED

T is said to be bijective if T is one to one and onto

EVALUATION

CHECKING FOR ONE TO ONE

Let (x_1,x_2)  \in \:  Ker T

 \implies \:   T(x_1,x_2) \:  = (0,0)

 \implies \:   (x_1 - x_2 \: , \: x_1 + x_2) \:  = (0,0)

 \implies \:   x_1 - x_2  = 0\:  \: and \:  \:  \: x_1 + x_2 \:  = 0

On addition

2x_1  = 0

 \implies \: x_1  = 0

From

x_1 + x_2 \:  = 0 \:  \:

We get

 x_2 \:  = 0

Hence

x_1  = 0\:  \: and \:  \:  \: x_2 \:  = 0

Ker T \:  =  \{\theta \}

Hence T is one to one

CHECKING FOR ONTO

We know that  \{(1,0)  , \: (0,1) \} \:  \: is \: a \: basis \: for \:  \: \mathbb{ {R}^{2} }

So Im T is a linear span of T(1,0)  ,T (0,1)

Now

T(1,0)   =  (1,1)  \:  \: and \:  \: T(0,1) =  ( - 1,1)

Now we are proceeding to check whether

 \{(1,1)  , ( - 1,1)  \}are linearly independent

Let

 c(1,1)   + d( - 1,1)   = (0,0) \:  \: for \: some  \: \: c \: , \: d \:  \in \mathbb {R}

 \implies \: (c - d,c + d)   = (0,0)

 \implies \: c - d = 0 \:  \: and \:  \: c + d = 0

On addition

2c = 0

 \implies \:c = 0

Now from c - d = 0We get

 d= 0

So

c = 0 \:  \: and \:  \: d = 0

Therefore  \{(1,1)  , ( - 1,1)  \} \: is linearly independent

So

Im T = \mathbb{ {R}^{2} }

Hence T is onto

RESULT

 \fbox{T  \: IS \:  BIJECTIVE}

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