Math, asked by sfun668, 7 months ago

Shreyas has enough money to buy 54 machines worth rupees 200 how many machines can he buy if he gets a discount of rupees 20 on machine by inverse variation method

Answers

Answered by akularamarao84
5

Answer:

Answer:

100 machines

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of 1 machine = Rs.200

Cost of 75 machines = 200 \times 75200×75

= 1500015000

Now he gets a discount of Rs. 50 on each machine

So, Cost of 1 machine =Rs.200-Rs.50=Rs.150

No. of machines can be bought by Rs.150 =1

No. of machines can be bought by Re 1 =\frac{1}{150}

150

1

No. of machines can be bought by Rs.15000 =\frac{1}{150} \times 15000

150

1

×15000

Answered by singhrajputnaveen381
12

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is 60 first find original cost (2) find the price of the machine often discount (3) find the number of machine shreyas can buy now

Attachments:
Similar questions