Math, asked by poojithabasam, 6 months ago

simplify and give reason​

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Answered by jatinindia1512
2

Answer:

Your answer is 10

Step-by-step explanation:

→(4⁰ + ⅕) × 5² × ⅓ --------( a^-1 = 1/a)

→(1+⅕) × 5² × ⅓ --------( a⁰ = 1)

( 5 +1)/5 × 5² × ⅓ --------- ( taking LCM of 5&1)

6 × 5² × ⅓

5

( dividing 5² by 5 )

→6× 5 × ⅓

→30 × 1/3 (multiple 30 by 1 & divide it by 3)

→10

Answered by Anonymous
7

Answer:

answer in attachment

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hope it helps you

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